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2015重庆二诊英语答案

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下面是本站小编整理的2015重庆二诊英语试题和答案,希望对大家有帮助。

2015重庆二诊英语答案

  重庆市高2015级学生学业调研抽测试卷(第二次)

注意事项:

1、答题前,务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡规定的位置上。

2、答选择题时,必须使用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。

3、答非选择题时,必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔,将答案书写在答题卡规定的位置上。

4、所有题目必须在答题卡上作答,在试题卷上答题无效。

5、考试结束后,将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。

  一、单项填空 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

请从A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项的标号涂黑。

例:A computer can only do ________ you have instructed it to do.

A. how B. after C. what D. when

答案是C。

1. Regular reflecting is______ good habit. If so, you will make ______ great progress in your study.

A. /; a B. a; a C. the; a D. a; /

2. Close the door of fear behind you, and you ______ the door of faith open before you.

A. will see B. have seen C. are seeing D. saw

3. At present, we have come to sense that creativity is______ it takes to keep a nation highly competitive.

A. why B. what C. how D. that

4. — Who are you waiting for here?

— The postman ______.

A. send me the parcel B. will send me the parcel

C. sending me the parcel D. has sent me the parcel

5. So moving ______ that I couldn’t stop my tears when I heard it for the first time.

A. the story had sounded B. had the story sounded

C. the story sounded D. did the story sound

6. —You won first in the Chinese characters spelling competition. Great!

—______ !

A. Congratulations B. Give me five C. That’s all right D. Forget it

7. — Lucy’s difficulty in numbering and pronunciation makes her feel ______ in class.

— Let’s try our best to help her out.

A. stood out B. left out C. made out D. turned out

8. Teachers should bear in mind that each student’s improvement ______.

A. is closely monitored B. closely monitors

C. has been closely monitored D. closely monitored

9. — You look rather down today.

—______ to board the 4:20 flight, you know, I dared not close my eyes.

A. Having reminded B. Being reminded C. Reminded D. Reminding

10. The teacher didn’t imagine that a student good at maths ______ have failed in the exam.

A. must B. might C. need D. should

11. The visitors were admiring the charming flowers ______ it started to rain.

A. as B. since C. while D. when

12. China has made ______ clear to the world that in the course of its development it seeks for both golden, silver hills and clean water, green mountains as well.

A. this B. that C. it D. one

13. Sue is always finishing her task well within the shortest time. ______, she performs effectively.

A. In other words B. On the contrary

C. Sooner or later D. On the other hand

14. To my delight, the students are recycling many things they ______ away in the past.

A. were throwing B. will be throwing

C. had thrown D. would have thrown

15. —Too noisy outside! I just can’t focus on my study.

—______. Let’s go outside and play soccer instead.

A. I don’t think so B. Same here

C. Please be more patient D. Don’t push me too hard

  二、 完形填空(共20小题;每题1.5分,满分30分)

请阅读下面两篇短文,掌握大意,然后从16~35各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项的标号涂黑。

A

I can still remember every change of intonation whenever I recall what that old lady said to me, “Life may give me up, but I’ll never give up my life.”

She was admitted to hospital because of her stroke(中风)for the second time, which also meant that I need to spend a lot of 16 with her.

Honestly, she was a good patient, with no complaint, no 17 requirements, and she always cooperated with me very well, which I 18 very much. And she always held an optimistic point of view toward her condition, 19 I guessed she knew that there wouldn’t be much improvement. I actually asked why in a 20 way, and she said to me the very sentence. It was not spoken very clearly, since her stroke had 21 the movement of her tongue. I was not moved then, since after spending a few months in this hospital, I was almost 22 .

And that old lady had 23 stroke a few days later, which made her unable to speak or move anymore. I thought she would be 24 as others, lying there, waiting the day, and crying sometimes. But I was wrong. She still held that someday, somehow, she would fully 25 , though both she and I knew the possibility for that was extremely small.

Then, the very sentence she said 26 to me. A patient with absolute no hope still held the optimistic aspect in her life, regardless how 27 it was. How could I lead my life in that way? Since then, I’ve tried harder and worked harder. I would not give up my life either.

16. A. chance B. time C. life D. money

17. A. practical B. unreasonable C. acceptable D. meaningful

18. A. enjoyed B. suffered C. appreciated D. congratulated

19. A. so B. as C. since D. though

20. A. brave B. daring C. secret D. cautious

21. A. affected B. disturbed C. improved D. increased

22. A. indifferent B. frightened C. concerned D. anxious

23. A. other B. another C. few D. little

24. A. silently B. painfully C. exactly D. patiently

25. A. operate B. succeed C. understand D. recover

26. A. lived up B. looked forward C. made sense D. worked out

27. A. expected B. negative C. strange D. unlikely

B

Black Friday, the day after Thanksgiving Day, is a busy shopping day in the United States. Many people have a day off work on that day. Some use this to make trips; others use it to start 28 for the Christmas season.

Many stores have special offers and 29 their Prices on some goods. Some 30 their opening hours. There can also be traffic jams on roads to 31 shopping destinations.

There are 32 common theories as to why it is called Black Friday. One is that the wheels of vehicles in heavy traffic on the day left many black markings on the road surface, 33 the term Black Friday. The other is from an old way of recording business accounts. 34 were recorded in red ink and profits in black. Many businesses, 35 small businesses, started making profits before Christmas, so they started to mark in black ink on the day after Thanksgiving.

28. A. traveling B. shopping C. visiting D. cooking

29. A. prepare B. check C. lower D. raise

30. A. shorten B. enlarge C. reduce D. extend

31. A. popular B. outstanding C. splendid D. ordinary

32. A. many B. two C. few D. no

33. A. leaving for B. leading to C. coming out D. sticking to

34. A. Prices B. Interests C. Losses D. Benefits

35. A. particularly B. specially C. obviously D. eventually

  三、阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)

请阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该选项的标号涂黑。

A

A US student has just spent 30 days on an “insect diet ” – eating insects three times a day. Camren Brantley-Rios says traditional meats such as pork and beef are unable to continue and he wanted to try out what many consider the diet of the future.

Many people would not like the idea of eating insects distasteful, even if it were not disgusting. Not so long ago Brantley-Rios was among them. But for the last month he has been eating insects for breakfast, lunch and dinner.

“I’m mainly sticking to three kinds,” he says.

Occasionally he has included different insects. Preparing these he “actually cried”, though he insists they were surprisingly good.

Insects consume fewer resources than animals, like pigs and cows, to produce the same amount of protein(蛋白质), Brantley-Rios says – and more than two billion people worldwide include insects in their regular diet, according to the UN Food and Agriculture Organization.

“There’s not really a need to eat insects in America because we have it so nice,” Brantley-Rios says. “We have finer meats and we’re lucky to have that luxury(奢侈), so there’s not much of a pressure to eat insects right now. But what a lot of people are trying to do is make it a little bit more marketable.”

He has ordered insects from farms that usually supply zoos, which need them “to feed certain animals”. He has always made sure the insects have been fed on an organic diet, he says, and only bought species he knows are safe to eat.

He knows that one person eating insects won’t make much difference. To have a real environmental effect, millions would have to follow his example.

36. Why has the US student tried out an “insect diet”?

A. To seek for future vegetables.

B. To advocate traditional meats.

C. To make up for the lack of meat.

D. To explore new forms of protein.

37. What can we learn about Brantley-Rios from Paragraph 2?

A. He is tired of meats like pork and beef.

B. He didn’t like the idea of eating insects.

C. He had nothing to eat but insects last month.

D. He advised people to eat insects though disgusted.

38. What does the underlined part “actually cried” in Paragraph 5 mean?

A. was scared B. was pitiful C. was sorry D. was puzzled

39. How does Brantley-Rios guarantee the safety of his insect diet?

A. He tests each species before eating it.

B. He has insects raised on his own farm.

C. He feeds his insects on an organic diet.

D. He orders insects for certain zoo animals.

B

It’s no secret that doing good makes others happy – but did you know it can make you happy as well?

According to a study, people participating in meaningful activities were happier and felt that their lives had more purpose than people who only engaged in pleasure-seeking behaviors.

Try giving these four things to others to start your journey to a happier and healthier lifestyle.

1. Your Time

With a busy life, it can be hard to find any time to give away. However, volunteering your time has great benefits, including making new friends and connections, learning new skills and even advancing your career.

According to a paper about the link between health and volunteering, volunteering is connected with lower instances of depression and reduces the risk of dying by 22 percent.

2. Your Attention

Most of us think we’re good listeners, but according to psychologist Paul Donoghue, most people are aware that others don’t listen as well as they could. In addition, they’re not fully aware that they themselves aren’t listening.

When practicing mindfulness meditation(正念禅修), you focus on what you experience in the moment and let your thoughts and emotions pass through without judgment. Did you know that giving someone your undivided attention helps you also? When done well, active listening strengthens your focus-which is a major part of good meditation.

3. Your Compassion

The psychological meaning of compassion is the ability to understand another person’s emotional state. Compassion differs from empathy(移情) in that those who experience compassion not only put themselves in another person’s shoes, but also want to reduce that person’s suffering.

A brain-imaging study showed that the brain’s pleasure centers are equally active when we give money to the poor as when we receive money ourselves.

4. Your Money

According to an experiment, those who spend money on other people are significantly happier than those who spend the same quantity of money on themselves.

Whether or not you can offer other gifts, donating money helps make real change happen. It represents time spent, compassion and careful attention to the needs of others.

40. Who is the happiest according to the study mentioned in Paragraph 2?

A. Bill, who is often invited to play golf by his wealthy uncle.

B. Tom, who is on the way to be the richest man in the world.

C. Mike, who is not well-off but often does what he can to those in need.

D. John, who is a disabled young man but has married a very beautiful girl.

41. What does the underlined word “depression” in Paragraph 5 mean?

A. pleasure B. unhappiness

C. connection D. misunderstanding

42. Which of the four gifts matters most according to the author?

A. Time. B. Money. C. Attention. D. Compassion.

43. What is the purpose of the passage?

A. To encourage people to help others.

B. To give the meaning of “happiness”.

C. To offer a practical way of life.

D. To show his kindness.

C

People should listen to music for no more than one hour a day to protect their hearing, the World Health Organization (WHO) suggests.

It says 1.1 billion teenagers and young adults are at risk of permanently damaging their hearing by listening to “too much, too loudly”.

It said audio devices(音频设备), concerts and bars were causing a “serious threat”.

WHO figures show 43 million people aged 12-35 have hearing loss and the number is increasing. In that age group, the WHO said, half of the people in rich and middle-income countries were exposed to unsafe sound levels from personal audio devices. Meanwhile 40% were exposed to damaging levels of sound from clubs and bars.

The proportion of US teenagers with hearing loss went from 3.5% in 1994 to 5.3% in 2006.

“What we’re trying to do is raise awareness of the problem that is not talked about enough, but has the potential to do a lot of damage that can be easily prevented,” said Dr Etienne Krug, the WHO’s director for injury prevention.

The full report argued: “While it is important to keep the volume down, limiting the use of personal audio devices to less than one hour a day would do much to reduce noise exposure.”

Dr Krug said: “That’s a rough recommendation, it is not by the minute, to give an idea to those spending 10 hours a day listening to an mp3-player. But even an hour can be too much if the volume(音量)is too loud.”

44. What might be the main cause of hearing loss according to the passage?

A. Listening to music frequently.

B. Listening to music at concerts.

C. Listening to too much and too loud music.

D. Listening to music from poor audio devices.

45. How many people aged 12-35 were most likely to suffer from hearing loss according to WHO?

A. 3.5%. B. 5.3%. C. 40%. D. 50 %.

46. Which of the following ideas would Dr Etienne Krug agree with?

A. Safe noise exposure is based on the limitation to both volume and time.

B. One hour of exposure to loud music a day will do no damage to hearing.

C. With proper volume, one can listen to an mp3-player for 10 hours a day.

D. It will be OK to be exposed to loud noise from personal audio devices.

47. What might be the best title for the passage?

A. Away from music

B. How to enjoy music

C. Risk of hearing loss

D. Warning of hearing damage

D

Penguin Group

Ordinary People Change The World!

Penguin Group and TFK have partnered together to help teachers show their students how they can make the world a better place. Building the encouraging lives of historic figures including Amelia Earhart, Rosa Parks, Abraham Lincoln and Albert Einstein, this attractive program takes a look at the real life stories of ordinary young people who grew up to become extraordinary adults!

Download the classroom poster, student worksheets and teacher’s guide provided below.

Classroom Poster : You can be a Hero, too. Classroom Poster

Teachers Guide : Ordinary People Series Teacher’s Guide

Student Worksheet : Who’s Your Hero? Worksheet

Student Worksheet : Hero Matchup Worksheet

PGA Junior League Golf

It Takes a Team!

TIME For Kids and PGA Junior League Golf have developed a program all about using teamwork to reach goals. Download this poster to get your students involved in the power and fun of teamwork and cooperation.

Encourage your class to go to and take the poll!

Classroom Poster : It Takes a Team!

International Fund for Animal Welfare(IFAW)

Cats, Dogs, & Us

TIME for Kids has partnered with IFAW to present an educational animal awareness program called Cats, Dogs, & Us. This project is sure to attract and engage students with discussion starters, in-class activity ideas, a video viewing guide, and many other in-depth and fun resources. Preview IFAW’s Cats, Dogs, & Us video at

Classroom Poster : Cats, Dogs, & Us Classroom Poster

Classroom Poster / Teachers Guide : Cats, Dogs, & Us Teachers Guide Full View

Teachers Guide : Cats, Dogs, & Us Teachers Guide Pages

Special Olympics

Special Olympics Project UNIFY®

in TIME and Special Olympics have teamed up to promote understanding of people’s differences in the classroom, school and community. Special Olympics Project UNIFY® is an education-based project that uses sports and education programs to activate young people to develop communities where all youth are agents of change-promoting respect, dignity and support for people with mental disabilities.

TFK Extra : in TIME Project UNIFY® Student Guide

Teachers Guide : in TIME Project UNIFY® Teachers Guide

48. Who are the materials mainly intended for?

A. Teachers. B. Parents. C. Students. D. Headmasters.

49. What is the purpose of “Penguin Group”?

A. To train students to be ordinary people.

B. To encourage students to learn from great people.

C. To provide teaching materials for history teachers.

D. To offer students different kinds of reading materials.

50. Which of the following is designed for students to learn to cooperate?

A. IFAW B. Penguin Group

C. PGA Junior League Golf D. Special Olympics

51. To know how to help a slow classmate better, you’d better go to “______”.

A. B. Hero Matchup Worksheet

C. D. In TIME Project UNIFY® Student Guide

E

Whether you prefer burning the midnight oil or going to bed early so you can get up at the break of dawn depends on your genes , according to experts.

I jump out of bed each morning, eager to start an active day. But I can hear my neighbour’s alarm clock ringing non-stop every morning and I doubt he gets to work on time.

A lot of noise comes from his flat in the evening. He’s happy to stay up watching TV till after midnight, while I go to bed early and try to sleep.

Well, it might not be his fault after all. I’m called ‘a lark (百灵鸟)’ and my neighbour ‘an owl (猫头鹰)’.

We all have inside ‘clocks’ in the brain to control all kinds of bodily functions and it is reset every day by light. These inside clocks run to a different schedule in ‘larks’ and ‘owls’. If you have a fast clock, you like to do things early, and if you have a slow clock, you like to do things late.

Because we live in a 24/7 world, scientists believe it’s important to understand a person’s ‘chronotype’ – the time of the day when they function the best. It could help us lead a healthier life.

A US professor has studied sleeping patterns and thinks work times should be changed and made more individual to fit in with our chronotypes.

And he has advice for those who can’t choose their working hours: “If that’s not possible, we should be more careful about light exposure”, says the professor. “You should try to go to work not in a covered vehicle but on a bike. The minute the sun sets we should use things that have no blue light, like computer screens and other electronic devices.”

52. How is the passage mainly developed?

A. By presenting and solving problems.

B. By explaining the cause-effect relationship.

C. By giving examples and drawing a conclusion.

D. By analyzing differences and providing advice.

53. We can learn from the passage that the author’s neighbour ______.

A. almost always gets to work on time

B. has to work deep into the night every day

C. is passive during the day but energetic at night

D. is easily woken up by his alarm clock in the morning

54. The underlined part “24/7” in Paragraph 6 most probably means “______”.

A. stressful B. digital C. confusing D. changing

55. Things with blue light are not recommended after sunset because blue light ______.

A. will make you nervous B. may cause sleep problems

C. will reduce your work effect D. may make you sleepy

  四、写作(共两个写作任务,满分35分)

写作一(满分15分)

请结合材料,按要求用英文写作,词数不少于60。

Some parents tend to look into their children’s school bags, diaries and even their chat records, which is very common in their daily life.

要求:

(1) 就此材料发表你的看法;

(2) 紧扣材料,有明确的观点;

(3) 词数不少于60;

(4) 在答题卡上作答。

写作二(满分20分)

假如你是高三学生李华,和表妹王芳即将参加2015年高考。请你结合自己的情况,用英语给表妹写一封建议信,建议她利用好高考前50天,考出好成绩。内容包括:

● 认真学习

● 调适心态

● 适度锻炼

● 其他方面

注意:

(1)词数不少于80;

(2)请在答题卡上作答;

(3)开头和结尾已为你写好(不计入总词数)。

Dear Wang Fang,

How are you lately?________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

Li Hua

  高2015级学生学业调研抽测(第二次)

  英 语 参 考 答 案

一、单项填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)

1—5 DABCD 6—10 BBACD 11—15 DCADB

二、完形填空(共20小题;每题1.5分,满分30分)

16—20 BBCDD 21—25 AABCD 26—30 CDBCD 31—35 ABBCA

三、阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)

36—40 DBADC 41—45 BBACC 46—50 ADABC 51—55 DDCAB

四、写作(共两个写作任务,满分35分)

写作一(满分15分)

As we know, some parents often look into their children’s school bags, diaries and even chat-on-line records. I fully understand what they are concerned about. They are actually worried about that the kids may get into some trouble. On the other hand, the parents have probably learned some horrible stories about other teenagers from their personal records.

However, I don’t think it is a proper way to do so because the kids not only need respect but also are expected to be respected. A good relation is based on respecting and trusting each other

写作二(满分20分)

Dear Wang Fang,

How are you recently?

I am writing to give you some suggestions on study and life. For Senior 3 students, time is precious. It is high time we took effective measures to live our life to the fullest.

First of all, I highly propose we make the most of the time in class, following our teachers. Besides, we tend to get anxious with time going by. Take it easy. More importantly, just as an old saying goes, Health is wealth. That is why we have to spend some time exercising regularly. Tired as we are, we are lucky and happy with so many teachers, friends, and our parents standing behind us. We may refer to them for timely help whenever we need it.

Do you like my advice? I do hope we will succeed in the entrance examination and be admitted to our ideal universities. Best wishes!

Yours,

Li Hua

  附评分原则及要求

五﹑写作(共两个写作任务,满分35分)

写作一(满分15分)

一、评分原则

1.归档原则:本题满分15分,基于与材料的结合程度,根据语言质量分为4个档次。词数少于60,下调一个档次。

2.总体要求:内容切题﹑观点明确; 逻辑清晰﹑行文连贯;语法正确﹑词汇丰富。

3. 英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

二、各档次给分范围和要求

第四档(12分~15分)很好地达到总体要求。

● 有效结合材料,观点明确;

● 内容连贯,条理清晰;

● 语言运用得体,词汇丰富,几乎没有语言错误。

第三档(8分~11分)基本达到总体要求。

● 有效结合材料,观点基本明确;

● 内容基本连贯,有一定的条理性;

● 语言基本运用得体,有少量错误,但能表达观点。

第二档(4分~7分)未能达到总体要求。

● 未有效结合材料;

● 内容松散,条理性差;

● 语言运用较差,错误较多,但基本能表达观点。

第一档(1分~3分)未达到总体要求。

● 未结合材料;

● 内容松散,缺乏条理性;

● 语言运用差,错误很多,严重影响观点表达。

0分:内容与材料无关,未传达任何信息;所写内容无法看清等。

(注意:评分时,学生的观点无对错之分,只要言之成理,均不影响得分。)

写作二(共20分)

一、 评分原则

1.归档原则: 本题满分20分,根据短文覆盖内容要点的情况及语言质量分为5个档次。词数少于80,下调一个档次。

2.总体要求:内容完整﹑覆盖要点;行文连贯;语法正确﹑词汇丰富。

3.英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。

二、内容要点

1.如何在高三剩余的学习时间内努力学习;

2.用积极的心态面对高三的紧张学习生活;

3.在紧张的学习生活之余,要注意锻炼身体,劳逸结合;

4.根据实际,自由发挥。

三、各档次给分范围和要求

第五档(17分~20分)很好地达到总体要求。

● 覆盖了内容所有要点;

● 语言运用得体,词汇丰富,几乎没有语言错误;

● 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,文章结构紧凑。

第四档(13分~16分)很好地达到总体要求。

● 虽漏掉个别次重点,但覆盖了所有主要内容;

● 语言运用较为得体,词汇与语法有少许错误;

● 有必要的语句间的连接成分,文章结构较紧凑。

第三档(9分~12分)基本达到总体要求。

● 虽漏掉个别内容要点,但覆盖了大部分主要内容;

● 语言运用较为得体,词汇与语法有一些错误,但不影响理解;

● 能够使用简单的语句间的连接成分。

第二档(5分~8分)未达到总体要求。

● 虽漏或未描述清楚一些主要内容;

● 语法结构单调,词汇贫乏,语言错误较多,影响理解;

● 文章缺少连贯性。

第一档(1分~4分)未达到总体要求。

● 明显漏掉主要内容,写了一些无关内容;

● 语言错误很多,严重影响理解;

● 文章不连贯。

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